I have come to see that the phrase "perfection epistles," used to describe three of Paul's prison epistles (Ephesians, Philippians, and Colossians) is a slippery one. It's a man-made denomination that, besides being unscriptural, rolls out the red carpet for the "Acts 28" deception which states that only six of Paul's thirteen letters are applicable to us today.

I don't know who originated the term "perfection epistles," but I learned it from notables such as A.E. Knoch and Adlai Loudy. I bought into it for three decades, never questioning the hypothesis that these three prison letters encased the highest revelations of Paul. Something never quite sat right with me, however, particularly when the "joint-enjoyers of an allotment" passage of Ephesians chapter 3—describing how Jews and Gentiles have become one body—was said by the "perfection epistles" teachers to be a brand new revelation that never existed before Paul penned Ephesians. But wasn't Paul already teaching that in Galatians with the famous "neither Jew nor Greek" pronouncement? (Galatians 3:28). What in the world would that be if not a "joint body"?

Without a doubt, the "secret of Christ" in Colossians chapter one, "the secret of His will" in the same chapter, and a clear reference to being "seated among the celestials" in chapter two, are high revelations of Ephesians. But so is 1) justification by faith, 2) race-wide salvation, 3) the death of the old humanity, 4) the believer's identification with Christ, 5) the mechanics behind the sovereignty of God, and 6) the secret of the duration of Israel's blindness—all found in the letter to the Romans. And so is the truth of the conciliation of the world to God (with all things being made new), found in 2 Corinthians. And the secret of the change of our bodies, found in 1 Corinthians. And the startling revelation that some members of the body of Christ will be made immortal without having to die, found in 1 Thessalonians. Are these not perfect and mature revelations? How about the news describing what detains the appearing of the man of lawlessness, found in 2 Thessalonians?

I have since come to understand that, beginning in Ephesians chapter two, Paul is basically reviewing all the revelations that have come to the nations since his ministry began (Paul's ministry to the nations formally launched in Acts, chapter 13). The "that era," referred to by Paul in Ephesians 2:12, when the nations were "apart from Christ, being alienated from the citizenship of Israel, and guests of the promise covenants, having no expectation, and without God in the world," could CERTAINLY not be describing the Gentile believers during the so-called "re-adjustment period" (another made-up phrase off the pens of Loudy and Knoch) between Acts 13 and the so-called "perfection epistles" of Acts chapter 28, during which time Paul wrote Romans, 1 & 2 Corinthians, 1 & 2 Thessalonians, and Galatians. "That era" could ONLY be referring to the time period BEFORE the calling of Paul, BEFORE the beginning of the heralding of his evangel in Acts chapter 13, when the only gospel in town was Israel's.

My goal here is not to kick away a leg from the "stool" of the Acts 28 theorists—though this is just what happens. My goal is to herald truth, at which time light comes and darkness is necessarily dispelled. Let the chips fall where they may—and don't spare the guacamole.